Poetry s The Rhythmical Creation Of Beauty - 1082 Words

â€Å"Poetry’s the rhythmical creation of beauty in words†~ Edgar Allen Poe (Brainy quote.com). As a novice to the wonderful world of poetry I have found pure enjoyment in the rhythmical poetry of Edgar Allen Poe, the sweet sound of the rhyming when read out load, allows my mind to drift away into to his dreamy and complex love stories. Annabel Lee, The Raven , and The Bells have wonderful characteristics including, sound and rhythm, word choices of the poems, and the themes of the poems; intriguing elements that draw the reader in to the depths of the poems. Let’s begin with the rhyme scheme, according to Roberts and Zweig the Rhythm develops from the human imagination and is expressed rhythmically. The poem Annabel Lee shows the concept of external rhyme scheme, In the first stanza , line 1 and 3 â€Å" It was many and many a year ago, and That a maiden there lived whom you may know†, â€Å"ago and know† are appealing due to the ending sound of the last syllables known as heavy stress rhyme or rising rhyme . Poe’s poem also contains internal rhyme which the matching syllables in the words are in the middle of a line. The Bells shows clear evidence of internal rhyme line 65 ‘ By the sinking or the swelling in the anger of the bells/ line 69 â€Å"In the clamor and the clangor of the bells† the meaning may be obscure but the sound is smooth and exciting. Poe’s famous poem â€Å" The Raven† also has quality internal Rhyming, such as in line 55 â€Å"only† and â€Å"lonely†. The internal orShow MoreRelatedPoectic Analsis on Sonnet 18 Shakespeare2545 Words   |  11 Pagesits literary value will also be discussed. Overall interpretation The poem carries the meaning of an Italian or Petrarchan Sonnet. Petrarchan sonnets typically discussed the love and beauty of a beloved. In the sonnet, it talks about how the beloved differs from the summer; summer is fleeting; but beloved’s beauty will last forever (‘Thy eternal summer shall not fade†¦ ’) and never die. Because it is preserved in the poem, which will last forever; it will live as ‘long as men can breathe or eyesRead MoreThe Raven And Ulalume By Edgar Allan Poe3442 Words   |  14 Pages’ Poe once wrote, I should call it ‘the reproduction of what the Senses perceive in Nature through the veil of the Soul.’ The intense grief that is felt after losing a loved one can often result in despair and irrationality, but in some of Poe’s poetry it has resulted in the severe mental collapse of the narrator. In The Raven and Ulalume by Edgar Allan Poe, the adverse effects following the loss of a loved one are demonstrat ed through the use of alliteration and repetition. Edgar Allan Poe,Read MorePoems with Theme with Life and Death and Their Analysis8446 Words   |  34 Pagesoften rhythmic, ways to form the literature called poetry. Poetry, like all literature, attempts to communicate an author’s emotional and philosophical responses to his or her own existence and to the surrounding world. It is an expression of what is thought and felt, rather what is known as fact. Nature and Use: Poetry is much harder to define, though it is perhaps more recognizable than other literary forms. In print poetry has a markedly different appearance from other typesRead MoreHumanities11870 Words   |  48 Pagesimportant. *Some definitions of art according to philosophers: †¢ Art is that which brings life in harmony with the beauty of the world.-Plato †¢ Art is the whole spirit of man.-Ruskin †¢ Art is the medium by which the artist communicates himself to his fellows.-Charleston Noyes †¢ Art is anything made or done by man that affects or moves us so that we see or feel beauty in it.-Collins and Riley How to tell what is good art? Many people think art is subjective. The answer is:Read MoreIntramuros4927 Words   |  20 Pages– 420 AD) based at Nanjing in the south, painting became one of the official pastimes of  Confucian-taught bureaucratic officials and  aristocrats  (along with music played by the  guqin  zither, writing fancifulcalligraphy, and writing and reciting of poetry) The  Sakyamuni Buddha, by  Zhang Shengwen, 1173–1176 AD,  Song dynasty  period. 4 The establishment of classical Chinese landscape painting is accredited largely to the  Eastern Jin Dynasty  artist  Gu Kaizhi  (344 – 406 AD), one of the most famous artistsRead MoreANALIZ TEXT INTERPRETATION AND ANALYSIS28843 Words   |  116 Pagespersonality of the characters in the work, we must also be prepared to evaluate how successful the author has been in their creation. Although it is unreasonable to expect that the characters of fiction will necessarily be close approximations of the kind of people that we know – for part of the joy of fiction is having the opportunity to meet new people – we can expect the author’s creations to be convincing and credible on their own terms. If they are not, such characters can be counted as relative failuresRead MoreMetz Film Language a Semiotics of the Cinema PDF100902 Words   |  316 PagesOxford University Press, 1974. Includes bibliographical references. ISBN 0-226-52130-3 (pbk.) 1. Motion pictures—Semiotics. 2. Motion pictures— Philosophy. I. Title. PN1995.M4513 1991 791.43 014—dc20 90-46965 C1P The French edition of Christian Metz s Essais sur la signification au cinema, volume 1, was published by Editions Klincksieck in 1971,  © Editions Klincksieck, 1968. ÃŽËœThe paper used in this publication meets the minimum requirements of the American National Standard for Information Sciences-Permanence

Gender Inequality And Gender Pay Gap - 1543 Words

In this essay, four theories are assessed in relation to the magnitude of the gender pay gap in the UK. These theories are taste discrimination, statistical discrimination, human capital and occupational segregation. Other research and data are included in this essay as evidence to support the different theories. The four theories covered in this essay all provide some explanation for the gender pay gap in the UK, some more than others – statistical discrimination theory having the highest explanatory power for the magnitude of this pay gap. The gender pay gap can be defined as the difference in the amount of earnings between men and women; and in the UK, as well as other parts of the world, there is an absence of economic equality. In†¦show more content†¦There is also evidence to women being much less likely to become a manager as there are only 32.2% (Allen, 2015) of senior and middle-level managers who are women in 2012 which indicates a ‘glass-ceiling’ that adds to the difference in pay between men and women. Becker’s taste discrimination model is therefore an explanation of the magnitude of the gender pay gap in the UK and it has high explanatory power. This is due to there being a large amount of evidence to support there being an aversion to hiring women and preference of hiring men over women. Another theory that can explain the magnitude of the gender pay gap in the UK is the ‘statistical discrimination’ model that was developed by Phelps, Arrow and Cain. In this mod el, there is differential treatment of members of the minority group because of imperfect information which then leads to discrimination to that group. (Bertrand, Duflo, 2016). In terms of gender pay gap, this model means that different genders are treated differently and because of faulty information about the genders, women are discriminated against resulting in a gender pay gap. This imperfect information comes from applying average characteristics the employer believes they know about women and applying it to individual women who are applyingShow MoreRelatedGender Inequality : Gender Pay Gap975 Words   |  4 PagesThe gender pay gap in Hollywood The gender pay gap is the difference in pay earned by men and the pay earned by women.( Pay Equity Commission, 2012). There are various ways in measuring the pay gap between genders, such as full- time or full- year wage. Statistics Canada data ( 2012) displayed that the gender pay gap in Ontario was 26% for full- time and full- year employments, which means for every C$1 earned by a man, a woman earned 74 cents( Pay Equity Commission,2012).The pay gap has been narrowingRead MoreGender Pay Gap And Gender Inequality2247 Words   |  9 PagesGender pay gaps are defined as the average difference between men’s and women’s aggregate hourly earnings. One of the largest driving factors of the gender wage gap is the fact that men and women, on average, work in different industries and occupations. Women in every state experience the pay gap, but in some states it is worse than others. The pay gap affects women from all backgrounds, at all ages, and of all levels of educatio nal achievement. In 2014, women working full time in the UnitedRead MoreGender Inequality : The Pay Gap1905 Words   |  8 Pagescomposed this informative essay on the chosen topic gender inequality: the pay gap is because I thought it’s an important topic to be explored and it ties into economic inequality. With my revisions, I focused on clarifying certain information I put into my essay from other sources so that women could have better explanations on how this information supports the overall paper. I attempted to cover three core areas that may be contributing to the pay gap in hopes that this would guide their attention onRead MoreThe Inequalities Of The Gender Pay Gap1511 Words   |  7 PagesIntroduction It is important to address the systemic inequalities of the gender pay gap. To do this, this essay will use Bacchi (2006) approach to analyse the text â€Å"Speech to HRINZ: The reasons for the Gender Pay Gap† by MP Paula Bennett. This essay will illustrate the theoretical perspective of liberal feminism to show the understanding of the problem, and the solutions of the gender pay gap. This essay will also look at two other theoretical perspectives, social democratic, and anti-racism andRead MoreGender Wage Inequality1630 Words   |  7 Pagesdiscussion of gender pay gap without defining it. Simply put, gender pay gap is the inequality between men and women wages. Gender pay gap is a constant international problem, in which women are paid, on average, less than that of their male counterpart. As to if gender pay gap still exist, its exactness fluctuates depending on numerous factors such as professional status, country and regional location, gender, and age. In regards to gen der, in some cases, both men and women have stated that the gap doesRead MoreGender Inequality Of The Financial Sector1498 Words   |  6 PagesGender Inequality in the Financial Sector Inequality based on gender is an ongoing ethical issue that many women still face in the workplace. Gender inequality refers to unfair treatment and perceptions on another person’s gender and tends to happen a lot in many different companies and organizations. These types of inequality can range from women getting paid less then men or women not chosen for high positions in companies such as CEOs. As Hannah Gould points out in her newspaper article, â€Å"WeRead MoreThe Construction And Experience Of Gender Inequality1395 Words   |  6 Pagesconstruction and experience of gender inequality. Men and women are constantly analyzed, compared, and grouped together in society. The result of this yields discrepancies in how sexes are viewed by society. Throughout my examination and explanation of gender inequality, I concluded both men and women are victims to gender inequality. I examined different professional industries in The United States to get a familiar understanding of gender inequality around me. Gender inequality does not particularly favorRead MoreEssay on Occupational Segregation994 Words   |  4 PagesOccupational Segregation Since the beginning of time, from all accounts, there has been some form of inequality between genders in society. This has become especially true in the workplace and for some people occupational segregation may be to blame. Occupational segregation is the grouping of similar jobs at similar workplaces. Not to be confused with job segregation which looks at specific jobs within specific workplaces, occupational segregation focuses on the occupation as a whole. An exampleRead MoreGender Inequality : A Critical Issue That Affects Women s Rights1662 Words   |  7 PagesGender Inequality Research Paper Gender inequality is a critical issue that affects more women than their male counterparts all around the world. Gender inequality is a form of legal discrimination towards women’s rights. In order to progress and grow as a community and society, gender equality needs to be acknowledged. According to LISTVERSE, the top ten â€Å"extreme† examples of gender inequality towards women that exists around the world today, specifically in the Middle East and North Africa, areRead MoreGender Inequality : A Good Understanding Of The Social Inequality Essay1487 Words   |  6 PagesAs a female college student I feel the necessity to have a good understanding of the social inequalities around me. Although, women have socially grown with more power over the years, it is not enough to equalize with the men. For example, the pay gap difference between men and women for not having the â€Å"testosterone bonus† even though the same education and qualifications are present. I ho pe that over time I will be able to experience a change and have the same equal rights as men because I feel

Analysis of girl, interrupted Free Essays

Film Synopsis Girl, Interrupted is a true memoir based on author Susanna Kaysen’s nearly two-year stay in a mental institution during the late 1960s. Winona Ryder stars as Susanna, an unhappy, upper-middle-class girl who is uncertain about her life after graduating from high school. Her depression, confusion and promiscuity lead her to chase a bottle of aspirin with a bottle of vodka. We will write a custom essay sample on Analysis of girl, interrupted or any similar topic only for you Order Now She insists, however, that she was not trying to kill herself, but had a â€Å"headache.† Susanna’s parents take her to a psychiatrist, who asks her if she needs a rest, before suggesting she admit herself to Claymoore Mental Hospital. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with borderline personality disorder and depression. For the most part, the film flip-flops between Susanna’s memories of incidents that may have led to her disorder and her interactions with the other mental patients. Susanna soon realizes that the other patients are much worse off than her. Each character deals with various types of mental disorders caused by previous events in their lives. Polly is a burn victim trying to cope with her disfigurement; Daisy comes from an abnormal, abusive family. She has an odd obsession with chicken and refuses to eat in front of others; and Georgina, Susanna’s roommate, who has been diagnosed as a pathological liar. There is also another main character, Lisa – a veteran of the hospital. She is wild and seems to have sociopathic tendencies. She spends half of her time instigating fights, and embarrassing and scaring the other patients. The other half of her time is spent trying  to nurture them in a way. This is shown by the way childlike Polly looks up to Lisa and believes in everything Lisa says. Played by Angelina Jolie, Lisa constantly escapes from the hospital and makes sure everyone sees her as a leader. Lisa even convinces Susanna to slip out one night after Daisy is released. They visit Daisy in her new house and during the visit Daisy ends up committing suicide. Susanna seems calm throughout the movie, mainly watching and listening to the other patients, especially Lisa. Because of this, it seems Susanna grows stronger throughout the movie and learns from the other girls. Evaluation of disorders and symptoms Susanna’s symptoms are excellently portrayed as she is mostly confused, while dwelling on her past mistakes. She obviously has low self esteem and almost sees herself as invisible to the outside world. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) describes the symptoms of borderline personality disorder as experiencing the same mood for weeks, as well as having intense bouts of anger, depression and anxiety. NIMH indicates on its website, www.nimh.nih.gov, this mood may be associated with self-injury and drug or alcohol abuse problems. Susanna experiences bouts of depression and anxiety before and during the beginning of her hospital stay. The mood eventually leads to her failed suicide attempt. The institute also says that those with personality disorders view themselves as fundamentally bad or unworthy; they feel unfairly misunderstood, bored and empty, and have little idea of who they are. According to NIMH, sufferers often have unstable patterns of social relationships. Susanna portrays this with her promiscuity and stormy relationship with her parents. She also partakes in risky behavior, partying too much and sleeping with married men. The supporting characters’ symptoms are displayed accurately. Polly experiences extremely low self-esteem and looks for acceptance from everyone because she feels ashamed and devalued after her burn accident. Trauma usually causes deep feelings of sadness, anger and distress. Georgina, who is characterized as a pathological liar, seems the most â€Å"normal† of the bunch. Although, she spends her time telling stories which the others are not sure they should believe. Georgina is eventually discharged during Susanna’s stay. Daisy is a very disturbing character in the unit. She has been sexually abused which has caused her many problems including a possible eating disorder and various serious psychological problems. The effects of the sexual abuse have apparently taken a toll on Daisy. She portrays symptoms common to sexually abused children: Being overly controlling and angry, striving for perfection, fear of having close relationships with other people, obsessive compulsive disorder, as well as eating disorders. Daisy finds it hard to trust anyone, except Lisa, and is reclusive, staying in her room for most of the time. Reaction to film Overall, I thought Girl, Interrupted accurately depicted the disorders of which each girl suffered. The flashbacks to previous events in Susanna’s life leading up to her stay at Claymoore helped to explain why she developed the disorder. It almost seemed as though the borderline personality disorder affected her wanting to live in the â€Å"real world.† I thought she seemed to feel safer in the institution and was able to, at times, forget about her own problems and delve into the others’ problems. When she was ready to be released, though, she realized that she does not want to end up like most of the other girls – who will most likely spend the majority of their lives institutionalized. The film, especially because it is a true story, was educational, thoughtful and somewhat heartbreaking. It provided me with a better understanding of what people suffering from mental illnesses go though in their daily lives.       How to cite Analysis of girl, interrupted, Essay examples

Appeals Compare and Contrast Essay free essay sample

In William Shakespeare’s Rendition of Julius Caesar death, the character Brutus must persuade the audience into believing his murder of Caesar was justified. To be sure that he is imprinted as a â€Å"heroine† for saving the roman empire he makes Mark Anthony go, knowing that the audience will believe him for he was Caesars best friend. Brutus makes sure that he implies him as a good guy by giving him restrictions on what he could and could not say, but ultimately Brutus fails with his plan for he did not listen to Anthony’s speech which was one of his most grave mistakes, and Anthony wins over the audience while Brutus is forced to flee from the roman empire. In Brutus’s speech he enlightened the audience through his use of logos by demonstrating the true sense of capability they would have faced if Caesar would have continued as a tyrannical ruler as he says â€Å"would u had Caesar were living, and die slaves†. We will write a custom essay sample on Appeals Compare and Contrast Essay or any similar topic specifically for you Do Not WasteYour Time HIRE WRITER Only 13.90 / page Brutus stressed the oppressing future and eventual demise of the roman empire as long as Caesar had remained in power, hence his reasoning behind his actions. As Brutus using pathos to persuade the audience as he says â€Å"who here is so vile that will not love his country† Brutus expresses his feelings for the empire and how he cares trying to make the audience feel the dreadful for thinking that his killing of Caesar was a betrayal to the empire. The Biggest flaw was that his speech was too short he never really explained the crimes or tyranny that Caesar had committed and that would eventually be his downfall. As mark Anthony approaches the audience he had to find a way to oblige to Brutus’s rules of not saying anything negative of him. He announces to the audience using logos by expressing his sadness for Caesars death, as he speaks he quotes the conspirators as â€Å"honorable men† as he repeated the quote over and over the audience began to rally up and shout, the more he said it the more the audience realized how Brutus lied to them. Anthony had shown the audience of the Brutus’s betrayal without saying he wasn’t a honorable man. As Anthony says â€Å"He [Caesar] hath brought many captives home to Rome whose ransoms did the general coffers fill† showing that Caesar had cared for the city trying to bring wealth to the empire, but then Anthony says â€Å"but Caesar is ambitious† making the audience praise more for Caesar for he had brought wealth to the empire. Anthony shows the audience of Brutus’s act of violence which ultimately gave Anthony the audience and the upper hand. Anthony showed Brutus as a â€Å"hero† as brutus wanted, but brutus did not expect Brutus fails of his plans to make the audience belive caesars death was justified, Anthony shows the audience in anthonys words, that he was telling the truth from his sadness and tone, while Brutus was failed as he only said a few words and left Anthony all by himself. Ultimately making the audience team up with Anthony, as Brutus flees the empire.

The Pioneers Of Russian Women Writers Essay free essay sample

, Research Paper The Pioneers of Russian Women Writers Thesis Map: Marina Tsvetaeva and Anna Akhmatova were two of Russia s greatest lyric poets, but the influences of their authorship, their obscene love personal businesss, and how their state perceived them made them really different people. We will write a custom essay sample on The Pioneers Of Russian Women Writers Essay or any similar topic specifically for you Do Not WasteYour Time HIRE WRITER Only 13.90 / page For old ages, Russian adult females have been regarded as incapable of bring forthing great literary plants of art. Such dismissive positions of adult females s composing recur once more and once more in Russian history, their return being partially explained by the utmost fear with which educated Russian s respect to philosophical and aesthetic positions of the yesteryear ( Kelly 3 ) . Yet, two powerful adult females, Marina Tsvetaeva and Anna Akhmatova, forced Russia to take note of the accomplishment of adult females authors. Along with other Russian adult females authors, they helped to pave the manner for future adult females authors. Marina Tsvetaeva and Anna Akhmatova were two of the modern Russia s greatest lyric poets ( Dybka ) , but the influences of their authorship, their obscene love personal businesss, and how their state perceived them made them really different people. Marina Tsvetaeva was recognized as an first-class poet when she was in her teens ( Karlinsky 176 ) . The significance of her early plants were derived form common household, friends, and life jobs ( 175 ) . Old ages subsequently, as she matured as a author, Tsvetaeva s subject in her verse forms reflected the happenings in her life. For case, a verse form from Poems to Chekia, Tsvetaeva discusses the consequence of events environing Communism: They took the sugar, and they took the trefoil they took the North and took the West. They took the hive, and took the hayrick they took the South for us, and took the East. # 8211 ; 1939, ( Trans. Feinstein 49 ) On the contrary, a batch of Anna Akhmatova s composing stemmed organize the political issues in Russia. Since Akhmatova believed in Acemeism, a motion that praised the virtuousnesss of lucid, carefully-crafted poetry and reacted against the vagueness of the Symbolist manner which dominated the Russian literary scene of the period ( The Academy of American Poets ) , she was persecuted by the Soviets. Acemeism was non in conformity with the Communist regulation ( Dybka ) . During Stalin s regulation, Akhmatova s boy and ex-husband were arrested ; her hubby was subsequently executed ( Dybka ) . In hopes of acquiring her boy out of prison, Akhmatova wrote satisfying verse forms about Joseph Stalin ( Dybka ) . Her attempt did non assist her boy ( Dybka ) . The relationships Tsvetaeva shared with important others were non customary. Equally good as her matrimony to Sergei Efron, Tsvetaeva had at least one adulterous matter with Sophia Parnok, another esteemed author ( Is Tsvetaeva a Lesbian Poet ) . Her homosexual relationship with Parnok earned her the moniker Lesbian Poet ( Is Tsv # 8230 ; ) . However, Tsvetaeva was non purely a tribade, she was bisexual ( Is Tsv # 8230 ; ) . On the other manus, Akhmatova had adulterous personal businesss, but they were merely with work forces. Despite her success as a poet, her first hubby, Nikolai Gumilev, became really covetous of her success and they had both been unfaithful ( Dybka ) . As a consequence their, matrimony fell apart ( Dybka ) . Tsvetaeva married Vol demar Shi leiko following her divorce from Gumilev ( Dybka ) . Like his predecessor, Shileiko was besides covetous of his married woman s success ( Dybka ) . This matrimony did non last either ( Dybka ) . Initially welcomed by Russian authors and readers populating in out-migration, She now faced cheesed off editors of the ever-fewer migr diaries who judged her new poesy inexplicable and hence unpublishable ( Marina Tsvetaeva s Biography ) . Many critics did non like Tsvetaeva s work at all, viz. , Maxim Gorky. He wrote to Pasternak in 1927, # 8230 ; It is hard for me to hold with you in your high rating of Marina Tsvetaeva s endowment. Her gift seems to me shriek, even hysterical. She is non a maestro of linguistic communication. Language is her maestro ( Descriptions by Tsvetaeva by those who knew her ) . Now, her popularity in Russian has increased in recent old ages ( Marina Tsvetaeva s Biography ) . People admire her because of the tragic loses in her life that she tried to exceed ( MTB ) . Unfortunately, the desperation of fring her household and the deficiency of motive to compose once more was excessively much to cover with, so she took her ain life in 1941 ( Marina Tsvetaeva ) . Anna Akhmatova was a relic ; she represented the pre-Revolutionary Russian the manner of composing that consisted of mundane address and simple linguistic communication ( Dybka ) . One of Akhmatova s repeating subjects in her books is love ( Akhmatova, Anna ) . At the same clip, she enjoyed composing about faith ( Akhmatova, Anna ) . Consequently, the Soviets called Akhmatova half nun, half prostitute ( Dybka ) . Though Akhmatova was often confronted with official authorities resistance to her work during her life-time, she was profoundly loved and lauded by the Russian people, in portion because she did non abandon her state during hard political times ( Dybka ) . Despite their differences, Marina Tsvetaeva and Anna Akhmatova represent the bravery and strength adult females need in order to last in a barbarous universe. Even though they were frequently criticized for their authorship techniques and subject-matter, they did non allow that halt them organize making what they love: authorship. Plants Cited Akhmatova, Anna. 18 April 1999: n.pag. hypertext transfer protocol: //www.odessit.com/namegal/english/ahmatova.htm Descriptions of Tsvetaeva by those who knew of her and Is Tsvetaeva a Lesbian Poet? 18 April 1999: n.pag. hypertext transfer protocol: //www.treknet.is/nano/tsvetava.html Dybka, Jill T. Akhmatova: Biographical/Historical Overview. 18 April 1999 hypertext transfer protocol: //dybka.home.mindspring.com/jill/akhmatova/akhmat.html Karlinsky, Simon. Marina Cvetaeva Her Life and Art. Berkeley and Los Angeles: University of California Press, 1966. Kelly, Catriona. A History of Russian Women s Writing 1820-1992. Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1994. Marina Tsvetaeva s Biography, 18 April 1999: n.pag. hypertext transfer protocol: //www.treknet.is/nano/tsvetaeva.html The Marina Tsvetaeva Home Page. 18 April 1999: n.pag. hypertext transfer protocol: //www.geocities.com/Athens/Aegan/1911/mt_2.html Tsvetaeva, Marina. Marina Tsvetayeva Selected Poems. Trans. Elaine Feinstein. London: Oxford University Press, 1971

What Is Citation Order (Authorâ€Date Referencing) - Get Proofed!

What Is Citation Order (Author–Date Referencing) - Get Proofed! What Is Citation Order? Did you know that you can reference more than one source at once? This is a skill that every student should have. In this post, then, we’re looking at the rules for citing multiple sources and how citation order works in author-date referencing. When to Cite Multiple Sources Most of the time, one source is enough for a citation. For example, if you simply want to show where an author has discussed something, all you need to do is cite the relevant text: He argues that sport can be understood in economic terms (Lee, 2015). But if you want to show that someone has discussed something in more than one text, you could cite multiple sources by the same author. Likewise, to show that several people have discussed the same thing in various places, you could cite multiple sources by different authors. We will explain how this works below. However, keep in mind that you should only include multiple sources in a single citation if they support the same point. If you’re making more than one point in a single passage of text, you should give a separate citation each time. Citing Multiple Sources by One Author To cite more than one source by a single author, all you need to do is list the years of publication in chronological order. For example: He repeatedly argues that sport can be understood in economic terms (Lee, 1999, 2008, 2015). This shows Lee has made the same argument in at least three places. Each source would then be listed with full publication details in the reference list. One slight exception to this is MLA referencing, where citations do not include a year of publication. If you’re citing more than one source by the same author, you’ll therefore need to give a shortened version of the title for each one. Multiple Authors (Citation Order) Things get a bit more complicated when citing multiple sources by different authors. One common way of doing this (e.g., the style recommended in APA referencing) is to list sources alphabetically by author surname with a semicolon between each one: Other studies on the same subject reject this possibility (Acaster et al., 2002; Herring, 1986; Robins James, 1992; Widdicombe, 2015). However, some versions of author–date referencing recommend a citation order based on date of publication. For example: Other studies on the same subject reject this possibility (Herring, 1986; Robins James, 1992; Acaster et al., 2002; Widdicombe, 2015). This makes it essential to check your style guide for advice on citation order. If you cannot find specific instructions, though, simply pick one approach and apply it consistently throughout your document.

HEALTH LAW AND ETHICS Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 250 words - 7

HEALTH LAW AND ETHICS - Essay Example Another purpose of the Act was to ensure that the elderly of US did not need to leave their home and move in facilities that assist elderly. The purpose of enabling services to make sure that the patients with US that belong to the minority groups are well served (Shuttlesworth 359). People suffering from deadly diseases along with people who are recognized as drug abusers can obtain high quality care due to improvement in case management. Patients from the minority groups do not have proficiency over English language, they gain support through services provided by interpretation service providers. With the aid of education related to health care, people from the minority groups can learn how to manage their activities in order to secure healthy lifestyles. Eligibility services for these minority groups aid in enrolling individuals in health care facilities and decreasing their concerns about their finances. Transportation services aid minority groups in gaining timely access to health care

The Vigilance Project Case Study Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

The Vigilance Project - Case Study Example Vigilance is aimed at harmonizing record keeping and recording by the company across the division employees in different parts of the world. For the success implementation of the project, it is expected that the project team works together to ensure that the project is successful. However, the fact that there is a lot of bureaucracy with different project team members trying to prove superiority over others, the likelihood of the Vigilance project being successful is at doubt. Arnold, (2005) analyzes the major causes of conflict in the workplace citing that there must be a reason for such conflicts to arise. There must be a reason specific members of the project team were chosen for the project including those in the sub-teams. This implies that every individual on the team is equally important as the other. Frank Lanigan, who is the project communication lead, is charged with the responsibility of ensuring effective communication between the project managers and ensuring that all communication is done in good time. From France is the project manner Didier Armani. The sub-teams from the U.S. and France are also charged with the responsibility of identifying the appropriate fields that should appear on the screen of the system. Conversely, the French counterparts are supposed to map the data from the existing database and transfer the same to Vigilance. In this case, the members of the U.S team have prior experience in the development of a similar project called Perspective while working at Valmed. From the onset, Didier who is the project manager is very restrictive of the information flow despite all the members working on the same initiative. The U.S. team feel disgruntled because Didier does not give most of the opinions a fair due hearing. This is an indication that there appears to be some conflict between the U.S members and those from France. However, the

Drawing on personal experience and theories covered in module, prepare Essay

Drawing on personal experience and theories covered in module, prepare a detailed argument to a sceptical audience justifying the advantages and effectiveness of group and team performance - Essay Example A group can be defined as ‘any number of people who interact with each other, are psychologically aware of each other, perceive themselves to be a group, and purposefully interact towards the achievement of particular goals or aim’. (Rollinson & Broadfield, 2008: 305) This is the accepted definition of a group which will be used throughout this paper. From this definition it can be seen, as Rollinson and Broadfield point out, that the group will necessarily be small, it does not include the coincidental gathering of people and the goals of the group are formed within it and may not necessarily correspond with the goals which the organization in which the group functions places upon it. The main advantage to working as part of a team is that the whole is greater than the sum of the parts. Each member of a team brings their own unique skills and talents and so there is a large pool of resources from which to draw. If harnessed in the right way, this can be a formidable force and potentially far more successful than the work of an individual alone. A sceptic might argue that these different ideas and approaches can lead to conflict, and this is certainly a risk which must be seriously considered when putting together a team. However, by choosing team members which compliment each other and managing the group successfully, these pit falls can be avoided. Rollinson and Broadfield (2008) argue that the key to the success of a group, and the way to avoid the potential issues mentioned above, is cohesion, so that each member works for the good of the group. They note that cohesion tends to be greater in mature groups. If the group can overcome the initial stages of forming and storming, it is likely that it will achieve long-term cohesion in the norming and performing stages. They note that cohesive groups are more productive, more dedicated and tend to suffer less from issues such as absenteeism. However, they also warn that cohesive groups can in turn

Mappes Theories of Sexual Morality

Mappes Theories of Sexual Morality Some feminists have been accused of providing a negative view of sex, suggesting that all sex is rape and that males are the negative gender. Yet, what Dworkin and MacKinnon were really talking about was that the difference been consensual sex and rape is one of degree and not of kind (Kinloch Grebowicz 2004). In other words, the same sex act occurs in rape or consensual relationships, and sometimes it is difficult to tell when a rape has occurred or the sex was desired. When examining sex, there are many points of view. Thomas A. Mappes writes about the idea of using another person for sexual gratification. Are people really being used? What is coercive and what is consensual? These questions loom when one examines the subject of sex. Mappes begins a piece entitled Sexual Morality and the Concept of Using Another Person with the notion that if in fact the nonmarital sex is not immoral, and that sex without love is not immoral either, then it stands to reason that there are no substantive moral restrictions on any acts of sex. This is a different concept to fathom. It would mean that an anything goes attitude would prevail and that orgies in the street would be permissible much like animals gather to mate. Yet, the reality is that human beings are modest. They hide their sex lives from their acquaintances. Some engage in relationships behind closed doors like Jesse James and Tiger Woods, but even when such clandestine affairs are out in the open, individuals explain it away as an addiction. It is difficult to pinpoint exactly what sexual morality is. Mappes employs Kantian ethics to make his points, noting that it is wrong to use A to get to point B if in fact the only reason to use A is to get to that B position. In other words, a man may date a woman and have sexual intercourse with her and derive satisfaction. Yet, the sex act should take place in the context of love, for example, and not just to derive pleasure. If however the man uses the woman to get from point A to point B and for his own uses alone, then he is using her. He talks about voluntary informed consent however (Mappes). When Mappes talks about using another person, he does not imply that the use is immoral. It merely exists. When lying is involved, then the sexual act is deceptive (Mappes). Depending on the circumstances, holding back information may be considered a form of deception (Mappes). One can imagine that if a woman is dating a man and does not know that the man is married, then she is being duped. Consent is tricky however. Someone may be used by another but both individuals really know what is going on. The rape victim who is forced at knife point is obviously someone who is not consenting to sex (Mappes). That is coerced. However, someone who consents to sex under unusual circumstances, is not necessary being forced, even if there is some coercion or unsavory expectations in the mix. It seems as if coercion and deception are important elements when it comes to using another human being sexually (Mappes). The author concludes that using another person can only occur when someone either deceives, coerces, or takes advantage of someones desperate situation (Mappes). Many things enter the picture. Is there a threat involved, or an offer? In other words, is there coercion? An example is that in the film Indecent Proposal, a rich man offers a needy couple one million dollars for one night of sex. When they agree, their lives change. The wife does not realize how difficult living will be after essentially prostituting herself. There was no coercion. She was lured into it, but arguably she was used because a very rich man would take advantage of a poor couple. One can use the same logic to explain why women become prostitutes. Many say they are just paying the bills. Yet, one has to wonder if the situation is truly one where there is coercion or an exercise of free will. A similar storyline to Indecent Proposal comes from a recent episode of Gossip Girl where in an intricate plot; Blair is willing to sleep with her boyfriends cousin in order to win an empire back. She does it for the boyfriend, but in the end, it appears that she has not done the right thing. She was tricked into giving herself to someone she despises in order to change her circumstances. How does one know what an offer is really a threat? What question might be asked to determine whether a statement is an offer or a threat? One may ask what the outcome would be if one says yes or no. In the case of the film or television program mentioned, the outcome would result in a reduced amount of money and worldly goods. No harm would come to either woman or man. Yet, if the outcome would be loss of life or torture or something along those lines, then the offer would be construed as a threat. Coercion thus is not always equated with a threat. The author makes the point at the end that using another person occurs only when someone either deceives, coerces, or takes advantage of someones desperate situation (Mappes, 2007). This is true in that in all of these instances, one may use another sexually, but there are other situations where one may be used. For example, someone may enter into a relationship where a man is rather superficial. Perhaps he has narcissistic personality disorder and cannot love anyone in a deep sense. A woman enters a relationship with him and adores him. She does not realize he cannot love to the depths that she can. She falls in love with him but the problem is that he really cannot love her back. They have sex and she feels close to him, but he does not feel the same way even though he says I love you. He is not lying. For him, he loves her, but it is not in the same way she loves him. When he breaks up with her because he is bored of the relationship, and then starts a sexual relationship with a y ounger, more attractive woman, the woman who was dumped feels used. In respect to Mappes position, the author makes a good case, but there may be times when a coercive offer is part of the equation and there is an obvious use of another, or when there is no explicit sense of using another, someone will feel used. In the case of the narcissist, is the significant other really being used? Much depends on the mind of the reader. There is no coercive offer. If the woman feels used, that does not mean she was. There was no coercion or threat, so on some level, this case that appears to oppose the author really helps to support his point.

Child And Parent Behavior Observation Essay -- Sociology Child Psychol

Child And Parent Behavior Observation   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  I am almost always surrounded by the interactions between children and their parents. I hear it at my work, I hear it in restaurants, but most of all I hear it at my house. My mother owns a daycare and every night I hear parents being hit by a barrage of questions. When children are being picked up they always have a couple of questions for their parents. Children are always asking about the meal for the night or whether they can go over to a friend?s house or have some body over. Every night I see 12 different children with twelve different parents and it seems that each parent acts differently then the next.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  When I thought of observing the children that attend my mothers daycare I decided that I should observe the interactions betwe...

Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Define the term `ergonomics'. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the possible effects on health that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of visual display unit (VDU) workstations. (4)| |(c)|Outline the main factors to be considered in an ergonomic assessment of a workstation to be used by a VDU operator. |(14)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Provide sketches to show clearly the nature of the following mechanical hazards f rom moving parts of machinery: || |(i)|entanglement|(2)| |(ii)|crushing|(2)| |(iii)|drawing-in|(2)| |(iv)|shear. |(2)| |||| |(a)|Outline the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the inspection and maintenance requirements for fire extinguishers in the workplace. |(4)| |||| 4||Explain the meaning of the following terms in relation to noise control|| |(i)|silencing|(2)| |(ii)|absorption|(2)| |(iii)|damping|(2)| |(iv)|isolation. |(2)| |||| 5||Outline a procedure for the safe lifting of a load by the use of a crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(8)| |||| |(a)|Define the term `target organ' within the context of occupational health. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the personal hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce the risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance. |(6)| |||| 7||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| 8||List the items that should be included on an inspection checklist designed to ensure the safety of portable electrical appliances. |(8)| |||| |||| 9||Outline the main precautions to be taken when carrying out excavation work. (8)| |||| 10|(a)|State TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. |(2)| |(b)|Identify where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. |(6)| |||| 11||List the ways in which a fork lift truck may become unstable whilst in operation. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A1 – Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question aimed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge in relation to ergonomics. Socratic Seminar QuestionsMany candidates, for part (a), were able to provide adequate definitions of ergonomics, which is generally accepted as being the study of the interaction between workers and their work, and is concerned with the design of the workplace, work equipment and work methods with the needs and limitations of the human operator in mind. Definitions such as `man-machine interface', which still commonly appear in candidates' answers, are considered to be too narrowly focused. Ergonomics is concerned with far more than simply the use of machinery.Part (b) required candidates to demonstrate an understanding of the possible health effects that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of VDU workstations. A number of candidates simply listed conditions such as work-related upper limb disorders and eye strain, which was insufficient to gain high marks. The question required candidates to provide an outline of such conditions in order to demonstrate a proper understanding of the effects. An adequate outline would typically include detail of symptoms and the circumstances that would make the effects more likely.The final part of the question was answered reasonably well by most candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environment, the task and the individual, and their inter-relationships. Some candidates went beyond the scope of the question and paraphrased the requirements of the Health and Safety (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, such as the requirement for eyesight tests. In fact, most of the factors relevant to an ergonomic assessment are contained in a schedule to these Regulations.In addition, some answers included non-ergonomic issues such as fire safety and electricity. Once again, candidates are reminded to read the question thoroughly and to take note of key words and phrases. Section 2 Question 2 An understanding of mechanical hazards associated with moving par ts of machinery is a key part of the Certificate syllabus and this question was designed to test candidates' understanding of the categorisation of mechanical hazards given in Part 1 of BS EN 292:1991, `Safety of machinery – basic concepts, general principles for design' (and in the former British Standard, BS 5304:1988, `Safeguarding of machinery').Examiners were not looking for works of art; they did, however, require something that clearly represented parts of machinery and which demonstrated the particular hazard being referred to. Arrows to show the direction of movement helped enormously in this task. Some sketches were so poor that it was impossible to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas others were extremely well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A considerable number of candidates showed confusion between the different types of hazard; in particular, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were often interchanged, and `shearing' seemed u nfamiliar to many. Examiners were quite concerned that on the whole candidates did not take advantage of what should have been easily obtainable marks from this question. Question 3 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. For part (a), nearly all candidates were able to offer an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates included accessibility, visibility, proximity to exits and escape routes, travel distances, and the means of supporting the equipment off the ground and free from obstruction. Only a few candidates, however, identified the need to protect extinguishers from the weather and other sources of damage. A little more difficulty was found with part (b), which required candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers remain operational.There were, however, some very good answers that clearly differentiated between the purposes of an inspection and those of maintenance. Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in place, have not been discharged and bear no obvious damage. Maintenance, on the other hand, is something rather more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a competent person according to the manufacturer's instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the removal and replacement of equipment found to be faulty.Question 4 This question sought to assess candidates' knowledge of basic noise control terms and principles. Unfortunately, many candidates either confused the terms, particularly damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to noise control. The latter group of candidates sometimes resorted to giving other information on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the Noise at Work Regulations 1989, and for which marks were n ot therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which explained that: silencing refers to the suppression of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and pipes, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of either absorptive material or baffles; absorption is used to reduce the amount of reflected noise by using materials such as foam or mineral wool; damping is used primarily to reduce the amount of noise radiating from large panels and is achieved by increasing the stiffness of the panels; and isolation refers to the physical separation of people from the noise source (eg acoustic booths or havens), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by vibration isolation (eg flexible pipes or anti-vibration machine mounts). Some good answers included simple sketches and examples to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this area. Question 5 This was a question where candidates could earn high marks by imagining a lifti ng operation and then applying appropriate controls from first principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to have a detailed knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates wasted valuable time by going into detail on the suitability of the crane itself, even though the question was carefully worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation needs to take into account such issues as: the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe working load, free from defect, etc); the competence of the persons involved (driver, slinger, signaller); ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary; ensuring proper communication; keeping the area clear of other persons; and performing each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that maintains proper control. Question 6 Most candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the idea that the h armful effects of a toxic substance are normally confined to particular organs within the human body, such as the lungs, liver, skin or kidneys. Hence, a `target organ' is the part of the body that sustains an adverse effect when it is exposed to, or is contaminated by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the risk of ingestion and the role played by personal hygiene in reducing the risk.Again, candidates are reminded of the need to read the question carefully since many appeared to miss the words `personal hygiene' and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. Good answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as regular hand washing, the restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace, the use of suitable personal protective equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and cleaning contaminated clothing. Question 7 The importance of foot protection is illustrated by the fact that around 21,000 foot and ankle in juries were reported to the enforcing authorities in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates' awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was pleasing to note that a high proportion of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, identifying good examples of the types of hazard and the appropriate footwear requirements. The most common included: falling objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), spread of contamination (washable boots), molten metal (heat resistant boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), wet environments (impermeable wellingtons), slippery surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). Question 8 The Examiners were pleased with the overall response to this question.Most candidates were able to offer fairly comprehensive lists of inspection items that included: equipment appropriate for the task and environment; equipment tested; equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage; correct wiring and sound connections; fuses and other means of preventing excess current in place and of correct rating; accessible and appropriate means of isolation; and system not overloaded. Question 9 The dangers of excavation work include collapse of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, contact with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of water and contact with mechanical plant. Candidates should have been able to outline a range of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include: detection of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc); support of sides; storage of materials and spoil away from edge; means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks); guard-rails and barriers; means of preventing collapse of adjacent structures; safe means of access/egress; testing for, and ventil ation of, noxious fumes; means of pumping out water; procedures for working with mechanical plant; and general issues such as inspection, training and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, often by means of examples, performed particularly well on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide two respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung cancer being the most popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to identify several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a building during renovation. These included pipe lagging, wall and roof panels, ceiling tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metal girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not affecting the marks, the Examiners were a little surprised by the few answers that referred to mesothelioma in part (a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with as bestos exposure. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being relatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were: insecure, excessive or uneven loading; incorrect tilt and/or elevation of forks when travelling; uneven or unconsolidated ground; slopes (and incorrect procedures to deal with them); obstructions (overhead and low level); cornering at excessive speeds; sudden braking; poor condition of tyres; and mechanical failure. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2: THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Out line the duties placed on employers under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992. |(4)| |(b)|Describe the FOUR factors that should be considered when making an assessment of manual handling operations. |(16)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a workplace emergency. |(8)| |||| 3|(a)|Define the term `negligence'|(2)| (b)|Outline the THREE standard conditions that must be met for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence against an employer. |(6)| |||| 4||Outline the key points that should be covered in a training session for employees on the reporting of accidents/incidents. |(8)| |||| 5||List the main requirements of the Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1992. |(8)| |||| 6||With reference to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996:|| |(i)|explain the difference between `consulting' and `informing'|(2)| |(ii)|outline the health and safety matters on which employers must consult their employees. |(6)| |||| ||Outline TWO reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in monitoring an organisation's health and safety performance. |(8)| |||| 8||Outline the reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work. |(8)| |||| |||| 9|(a)|Explain the meaning of the terms: (i) ‘occupational exposure standard’ (OES) (ii) ‘maximum exposure limit’ (MEL). |(2)(2)| |(b)|Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. |(4)| |||| 10|(a)|Explain the meaning of the term ‘safe system of work’. |(2)| |(b)|Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of work has not been implemented. |(6)| |||| 1||Outline the factors to consider when making an assessment of first-aid provision in a workplace. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A2 – The management of safety and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 With manual handling injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by people at work, this question sought to test the depth and breadth of knowledge of candidates with regard both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. There were some very good responses to the first part of this question.Good answers outlined the employers' duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of: avoiding manual handling operations wherever possible; conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks; taking steps to reduce the risk of injury to the lowest level reasonably practicable; providing information to employees on the weig ht and weight distribution of the load; and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) required candidates to describe the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates correctly identified, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were able to consider a wide range of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures required (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the process, are all relevant. Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, stability, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the environment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for special information and training. The overall standard of response to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were generally able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question required candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, bomb scare, chemical leakage or other dangerous occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a specific requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied with some candidates able to provide qui te reasonable answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an actual emergency (usually a fire) rather than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. Better candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities: the identification and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities; the layout of the premises in relation to escape routes, etc; the number of persons affected; assessment of special needs (disabled persons, children, etc); warning systems; emergency lighting; the location of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc; the equipment required to deal with the emergency; the location of assembly points; communication with emergency services; and the training and/or information to be provided to employees, visitors, the local community and others who might be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates found it difficult to provide, for part (a), a clear definition of negligence, a tort inv olving a breach of the common law duty to take reasonable care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of criminal liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide reasonable answers that identified the three standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence: firstly, that a duty of care is owed; secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care; and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates made use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was rather poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word `reporting' solely in relation to the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases an d Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to training and simply outlined suitable internal reporting procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the actual procedures did not really form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the importance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident book and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a straightforward question where little difficulty was anticipated and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to: the suitability of work equipment ; training; maintenance of equipment; conformity with EU requirements; preventing contact with dangerous parts of machinery; protection against specified hazards; protection against high or low temperatures; stop and emergency stop controls; position of controls; safety of control systems; means of isolation; stability; lighting; safety of maintenance operations; and the provision of markings and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went further than necessary by giving detail of the requirements, such as the means of protecting against dangerous parts.Despite much of the information being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the `action verb' in each question. Question 6 The HSE guide to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between `informing' and `consulting'. Perhaps from a general understanding of the words, nearly a ll candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the two. Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations made under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was mixed, with some candidates seemingly applying a certain amount of guesswork (albeit sometimes quite intuitively) and others showing an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1 977.They include: the introduction of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees' health and safety; the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating competent persons; the planning and organisation of health and safety training; the health and safety implications of introducing new technology; and the information that the employer is required to provide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, preventive measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are obliged not only to provide information but- they must also consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of techniques and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that might be described as `reactive' (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are `proactive' (identifying non-compliance with polic y or procedures before actual harm occurs).Reactive measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims and enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and audits, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to this question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which demonstrated a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as: unrealistic or ill-considered procedures; mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account; inadequate training; poor organisational safety culture; complacency/lack of motivation; peer group pressure; other priorities and pressures; risks not perceived; slips and lapses; fatigue and stress; and perceived lack of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners' Reports drawing attention to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again struggling to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. Following this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is assigned an OES when current evidence indicates that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that average airborne conc entrations at or below the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or due to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered `safe'. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as far as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to minimise any ill-health effects.Excursions above an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates' explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the serious implications of exceeding an MEL. Better responses differentiated between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. Emergency procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the process producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be made of the reasons for the breakdo wn in control and improvements (such as more effective ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to high concentrations should be the subject of special health surveillance. Question 10 The development of safe systems is an essential part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight tendency for lists, which received minimal credit. Higher marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would determine the type of action that an inspector might tak e, and the effects of that action on the organisation. Possible enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or prohibition notice, and prosecution. Credit was also given for the recognition that an inspector may give verbal or written advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and location of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special needs of young, disabled or peripatetic employe es. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive dust levels in a workplace. (i) Identify FOUR possible indications of a dust problem that may have alerted staff to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne dust. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge of the problem of dust in the workplace. In answering part (i), most candidates were able to identify at least three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and irritation by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill-health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates addressed both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of maintenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, unauthorised alteration to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to increased dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to describe methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the activity creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of th e principles by describing such methods in a hierarchical order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming instead of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce personal exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more widely across the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driven strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the possibility of fire or explosion, contac t with the moving parts of the strimmer, being struck by flying stones and fragments, noise and vibration, manual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving traffic and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates decided not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible hazards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against electrical contact when: (i)excavating near underground cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with better candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the identification of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand-tools: rather than with a me chanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of goal-post barriers to define clearance distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with `tunnels'), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners' were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was significant that only about half of the candidates mentioned the possibility of isolating the power supply in either part of the question.Some can didates missed the focus of the question and either concentrated on the preparation of a risk assessment or described in detail the operation of a permit-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against electrical contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard:|| (i) fixed guard|(2)| (ii) interlocked guard. |(2)| (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a fixed|| machine guard. |(4)| In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a fixed guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the p rinciple that a machine cannot start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, and that when the machine is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be opened or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the identification of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Candidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to increased reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entry of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most candidates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by injection.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case, however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as: inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg welding) or accidentally (eg spillage); ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands); entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin; and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched (sloping) ro of. (8)This question sought to test candidates' knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the relevant precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling boards or roof ladders, identifying and covering roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a trained and competent workforce, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety goggles compared with safety spectacles. (2) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemical, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually made to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also generally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates generally gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of goggles from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displaced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the generally higher cost involved and the fa ct that they may be more uncomfortable than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associated with laying paving slabs in a busy high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as: trapped fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs; the possibility of being struck by traffic; injuries from the use of cutting discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles); the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and wet cement; and the increased likelihood of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal experience of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be visualised quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concentrated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners expected candidates to outline measures such as the proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). Additional measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, electrical equipment and systems should be subject to regular inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too brief. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. More knowledgeable candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos-containing materials. Question 11List EIGHT non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the candidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, various mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to refurbish existing office accommodation before recruiting staff. Outline: (i)the welfare facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the procedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, probably because it was concerned with issues that were relatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and nursing mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situa tion described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were involved. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have locker rooms, or shower and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general welfare issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some candidates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident repo rting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in answering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of identification badges, the provision of information on site rules (including emergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a member of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify ‘sanitary conveniences' without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for men and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level o f stress amongst employees. Outline EIGHT other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in stale air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to psychological (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms: (i) `hazard'|(2)| (ii) `risk'|(3)| (iii) `so far as is reasonably practicable'. |(3)| Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to find that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such fundamental health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable explanations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term `hazard'. As far as ‘risk' was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain `so far is as reasonably practicable', most candidates inferred that this involves balancing risk against cost but fewer were able to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In r elation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline: (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety representative|(6)| (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety || representatives. | (2)| || In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, attending safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not possess such knowledge. For part (ii), reference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a private room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, fax machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word `facilities' and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time to carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permit-to-work system might be || considered appropriate. |(2)| b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. |(6)| For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relatively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit syst em, the first of which would be a description and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This will determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements – namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the additional precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for the work. On completion of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be cancelled by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appear ed to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlining the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the findings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current legislation and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to communicate health and safety information to the workforce. (8) Posters are a commonly used medium for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more difficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the adva ntages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing verbal instructions or information and in providing a constant reminder of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the need to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to trivialise serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by shifting the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at wo rk. (4) (b) Give reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those undertaking them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candidates. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the strongly linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additional factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by alcohol or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the existence of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the likelihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and th eir contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor work environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as short a time as possible in order to return to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference between HSC Approved Codes of Practice and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the Secretary of State and provide a recognised interpretation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACOP is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court in criminal proceedings as proof that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards contained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display screen equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the mea ning of the term `suitable and sufficient'. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term `suitable and sufficient' in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information becoming available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisation's, health and safety performance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. Proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than the measures that are derived from them and which can be compare d over time. This sometimes limited the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. |(3)| |(b)|Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7)| |(c)|Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(10)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||In relation to occupational dermatitis:|| |(i)|identify TWO common causative agents|(2)| |(ii)|describe the typical symptoms of the condition |(3)| |(iii)|state the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. |(3)| |||| 3||A pneumatic drill is to be used during extensive repair work to the floor of a busy warehouse. | |(i)|Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. |(3)| |(ii)|Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. |(5)| |||| 4||State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. |(8)| |||| 5|(a)|Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. |(4)| |(b)|Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. |(4)| |||| 6||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the us e of special footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| ||The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the corresponding precautions to be taken. |(8)| |||| 8|(a)|Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the health effects associated with exposure to non-ionising radiation. |(4)| |||| 9||Explain the methods of heat transfer that cause the spread of fire. |(8)| |||| 10|(a)|List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. |(2)| |(b)|Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. |(6)| |||| 1||List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1999 Paper A1 – Ident ifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates' knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly